However, the overall proportion of total reds vs blacks should be 50%.
Obviously, each unique spin has a probability of 50% (academically, by excluding the greens) for either color.
#DOES A ROULETTE BALL DECELERATE CONSTANTLY SERIES#
Why wouldn't a series have an increasingly lower probability of extending than a single event has of happening once? Sorry for the VERY plain English, feel free to modify or suggest a change to anything that may be misleading. I hope I was clear enough with my question, if not, please ask for any clarifications needed. How is it that if you have seen the ball fall 5 times on a row on red, and you bet on red, you are NOT betting on 6 times on a row on red (that does have lower probability). I DO UNDERSTAND THE BASIC PRINCIPLE, that there is a material reality which makes the ball randomly fall on any of the two colors (which gives the options a 50-50 chance).īut, I also understand that if you "say": I bet red will come out six times on a row, you do have a very low probability of that happening so: My question is why should't I bet to black (or better said why it is the same the one I pick). The roulette hits 5 (or any amount of) times red on a row. So let's say I'm on a roulette (let's leave out the zero, or make it a coin for that matter). I can't figure out this one even though some have tried very hard to explain/convince me. First some context, I'm not a mathematician, not even close (as you will soon see) I do grasp some things about it but in a need to know basis, so plain english answers are appreciated (too).
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